Kramer defines the sample cross correlation (Eq. 1) as:
C_{ij}[\tau] = \frac{1}{\hat{\sigma_i}\hat{\sigma_j}(n-|l|)} \sum_{t=1}^{n-\tau} (x_i[t]-\bar{x}_i)(x_j[t+\tau]-\bar{x}_j)
Actually, Kramer's normalization of (n-2l) doesn't make sense to me for two reasons: (1) there's a spurious factor of 2 which does not capture the number of overlap terms in the case of finite signals, and (2) l should have the absolute value applied. I find that my corrected formula is consistent with Eq. 2 in Kramer2009, whereas the original definition is not.
Kramer also cites the following (Bartlett's) estimate for the variance of C_{ij}[l] when signals x_i and x_j are uncoupled:
var(C_{ij}[l]) = \frac{1}{n-|l|}\sum_{\tau=-n}^n C_{ii}[\tau]C_{jj}[\tau]
.
(Again, I added the absolute value.)
The corresponding mean is clearly E\left[C_{ij}[l]\right]=0.
For this inaugural post, I would like to verify the Bartlett estimate. I begin with two uncorrelated white Gaussian noise x_1[t] and x_2[t].
Here is the simulated distribution of C_{ij}[l] at a few values of l, and a normal distribution whose variance is given by the Bartlett estimate. Not bad at all!:
Next, Kramer asks us to consider the Fisher transformation of the C_{ij}, as follows:
C_{ij}^F[\tau] = \frac{1}{2}\log\frac{1+C_{ij}[\tau]}{1-C_{ij}[\tau]}
.
Oh, this bit is trivial. The Fisher transform maps [-1, 1] \to [-\infty, \infty], so C_{ij}^F is better described by the normal distribution than C_{ij}. I checked the correspondence of the above experiment, when the C_{ij} values underwent a Fisher transform. The agreement with the Bartlett estimated distribution is still good (the transform does little to change the values of C_{ij} above).
Next, let me consider the distribution in C_{ij} in the case of an actual correlation between x_1 and x_2. I will follow Kramer's example and define the two signals as follows: x_1 = w_1 and x_1 = w_2 + \alpha w_1 (\alpha = 0.4) where w_i are independent WGN instances. As I understand it, it is not required to estimate the distribution of C_{ij} under the alternate hypothesis ("H1: Coupling") for Kramer's framework, but I want to see the distribution since I have the scripts already written:
Interestingly, it does not appear to be the case that the distribution is simply the normal distribution with a mean at the coupling value \alpha and the Bartlett estimate of the variance. The distribution of C_{ij} (left panel in above figure) is definitely not well described by this candidate distribution; the distribution of C_{ij}^F fares better (right panel) but there is still a systematic offset.
[2013 10 16]: Actually, I wonder if the mean of the Bartlett estimate normal needs to be inverse Fisher-transformed...
Note that the correlated C_{ij} at \alpha=0.4 would all be extremely improvable (very low p-value) under the null distribution. So, correlation at \alpha=0.4 is highly detectable whereas \alpha \approx 0.1 would be harder to distinguish, as judging from the null hypothesis distribution.
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